Hardline Muslims insist that Sharia Law must be applied in all
Muslim countries. They feel that the Koran insists that a woman
who is raped must be stoned to death for having affected a man into
doing an act that the Koran forbids. They feel that if a person
steals a loaf of bread, his hand must be chopped off as the
But they seem to think that they can apply Sharia Law very selectively! Even following the beliefs of their religion and their acceptance of Sharia Law, they never seem to apply Sharia Law to virtually any Muslim men.
Specifically, there are many thousands of cases where Muslim men have thrown very strong battery acid in the face of their own wives or daughters if the woman had disobeyed a command that the man ordered. Very few such situations have ever gotten any media attention and even fewer have ever resulted in the man being charged with any crime regarding permanently disfiguring the woman.
It seems to me that Sharia Law SHOULD be applied to those men, and that Muslim understanding of Sharia Law even contains the guideline of what that punishment must be! The man must be taken out into a public Square and a representative of the Court must throw an equivalent amount of battery acid in the man's face! I do not see how Sharia Law could expect any less than that!
Therein, the punishment would fit the crime, which is at the core of Sharia Law. For hundreds of years, Sharia Law has automatically caused the chopping off of a hand or foot or arm or leg as a punishment for specific crimes. The claim is that such punishment would reduce the chance that anyone else would commit that crime. I would think that after even ONE Muslim man had battery acid thrown into his face to permanently disfigure him and his life, in a Public Square with a crowd of people and cameras watching, the likelihood of any other Muslim man intentionally throwing acid in the face of his wife or daughter would likely drop to near zero. And THAT is the core reason for Sharia Law in the first place!
In any case, many poorly informed Muslims today seem to think they are free to kill other Muslims whom they politically disagree with, and they even have very strong motivations to want to do that, of the guarantee of spending Eternity in Paradise with seventy-two virgins.
Some of these murderers commit suicide in the process of blowing up a Muslim Mosque of a different group of Muslims, which shows yet another lack of their knowledge and understanding, as the Koran makes very clear that suicide is a sin. But many others use remotely controlled bombs to blow up and kill those other Muslims, so they survive.
Doesn't it seem clear that Sharia Law is very clear regarding those who commit such murders? Again, doesn't it clearly indicate that such a Muslim who intentionally killed another Muslim MUST BE placed in a Public Square or a field, and blown apart by a representative of the Sharia Judge? How could Sharia Law expect any less than that?
Again, once even one Muslim man was killed by the very method he had used to murder other Muslims, I suspect that the number of Muslims killed by other Muslims would likely drop to near zero immediately.
For the record, the Koran also makes very clear that Muslims are to consider Christians and Jews as "brothers", because the Koran makes clear that we all believe in the same One True God of Abraham, even though our three religions call Him by different Names. Muslims call Him Allah, Jews call Him Elohim or Jehovah or Adonai, and Christians call Him by three confusing different Names as the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirity. But the Koran makes clear that every Muslim is supposed to treat every "brother" with respect and honor, which therefore includes all Christians and Jews. The actual result of this is that Muslims also commit sins when they kill or terrorize any Christians or Jews, and Sharia Law should then also apply to the Muslim who commits such crimes. In practical terms, no Muslim Sharia Judge is ever going to invoke such punishment of any Muslim for any such crimes against any Christian or Jew. But the point here is that IF Sharia Law is supposed to apply, then there are a LOT of situations where it should be invoked against Muslim men, but it is not.
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But THAT is the actual core reason for why Muslims consider SOME Christians and SOME Jews to fail in "following the Book". The Koran then describes that such people who do not properly "follow the Book" can and should be killed in order to preserve the (alleged) purity of faith. Very peculiar logic!
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